Right at the beginning of "Aesthetic Problems of Modern Philosophy," Cavell says that he wants to suggest "resemblances between one kind of judgment recognizable as aesthetic and the characteristic claim of Wittgenstein--and of ordinary language philosophers generally--to voice 'what we should ordinarily say'" (74).
This, I'm afraid, could be awfully opaque if you don't know what Wittgenstein's characteristic claims look like (although the brief excerpt from the Philosophical Investigations should give you a little bit of an idea), or what ordinary language philosophers do all day.
The Wikipedia entry on ordinary language philosophy is actually helpful and quite brief:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordinary_language_philosophy
But I'll give it my own spin here.
When you were in college and stoned out of your brain (ok, maybe when I was in college and stoned out of my brain), it inevitably occurred to you (me) that even though your (my) friend who just passed you (me) the bong acts like your (...) friend, he secretly might really not like you, or be unbelievably annoyed by you, or hate you. That all of his apparent goodwill and his liberal sharing of his pot was just an elaborate ruse to some inscrutable, villainous end, or merely the drudgery of a sense of obligation. That what you see of him is actually a mask. The fancy word for this position is skepticism. (And it's also a form of doubt, which, if you'll recall from last time, is what Descartes was really good at, and what produced an irredeemable distance between subject and object, or what made the subject an island onto itself. And what Kant was trying to overcome in his Critiques. And it also is something like the position that what film images give us is never or cannot be the object itself.)
One response to this is, "you're stoned, you're paranoid, don't be silly." Which is sort of a flat assertion of the reality of reality, which probably won't be very convincing if you're stoned and paranoid and human faces look like masks. (Or if your sober and alienated and human faces look like masks, for that matter.) Another response would be to list all of the friendly things your friend has done, to list acts of fidelity, to accumulate evidence of his amity. And this will only be marginally more convincing, and probably only for a brief second if you've worked yourself up into a good frothy paranoia, since every item of evidence will, inside your (my) stoned little brain, always be open to doubt--that all these apparent acts and aspects of friendship are disingenuous, or false, or hypocritical, or insincere, or didn't really occur. When faced with this caustic paranoia, somebody else sitting in the room might reply (if our false friend is absent, or deaf), "wow, you know, you're probably right, he really is an awful hypocrite, and you can't ever really know what another human is feeling." In this case, the paranoia has become contagious (this is a good chunk of what Eve Sedgwick is on about in her essay for this week). (NB: My rather sophomoric example of stoned paranoia here is not meant to be [merely] sophomoric; I promise you I'm not being patronizing. One of the points I want to be making here is that this doubt is not really some dry, intellectualized, affected, obnoxious intellectual claim, but a whole emotional and affective position, that you can be inside it, that you can feel it. I think this is not an indifferent point.)
Ordinary language philosophy responds to this by picking at your words, which ends up being way more convincing against paranoia than an accumulation of evidence. It thinks of itself as a kind of therapy (I'm being literal here; Wittgenstein says that flat out). Its response would be that your claiming that "you can never really know what other people are thinking or feeling" is actually just a linguistic sleight of hand, that you're forgetting (intentionally or not, under the influence of drugs or stone cold sober) what you mean when you say "know." What could it possibly mean to say that you cannot ever really know what somebody else is feeling? You're trying to get the word "know" to be more absolute, more watertight, more pure than what it actually is. Which is to say, what it ordinarily means. Which is to say, how we in fact use the word. You're wanting it to mean something other than it does. This is the sense in which ordinary language philosophy makes appeals to "what we should ordinarily say when..." or "what we mean when we say..." This looks like: "What we should ordinarily say when we see somebody cry out and writhe in pain is that he is in pain." (Another way ordinary language philosophy makes the same point is to ask when we say that we know somebody is in pain, versus when we ordinarily would merely say that he is in pain. What would the situation be in which you would feel compelled to say not, "he is in pain," but rather "I know he is in pain"? When it is in doubt? But why should it be in doubt? When he is hiding his pain, or denying it, etc. This sort of philosophizing can go on for quite some time, and Cavell is occasionally and unforunately longwinded in collecting examples of this sort around when we should say that a paraphrase of a poem is exactly or approximately what it means, etc. I am of course always terse.)
Cavell voices it this way in "Aesthetic Problems": "we impose a demand for absoluteness... upon a concept, and then finding that our ordinary use of this concept does not meet our demand, we accomodate this discrepancy as nearly as possible. Take these familiar patterns: we do not really see material objects, but only see them indirectly; we cannot be certain of any empirical proposition, but only practically certain; we cannot really know what another person is feeling, but only infer it" (77).
Ordinary language philosophy insists that what words ordinarily mean is what they mean, that philosophy has no special privilege to autocratically define words. (Seeing is seeing, we are certain of things, and we can, in fact, know what other people feel.) He points out that unless somebody questions us on our seeing/certainty/knowing, we will usually feel pretty confident in our seeing/certainty/knowing. But then somebody starts philosophizing (or passes the joint), and we find ourselves in doubt.
That is to say, for ordinary language philosophy, philosophy's contagious paranoia is something to work against, and that it is something that must be worked against. That we should work to overcome Descartes, and the isolation of the subject. I'll just reference what we said last time: Kant's aesthetics is the ground for our ability to have a community (aesthetics as the common/communal sense).
So Cavell's point here (and I'll let him make the argument the rest of the way himself) is that, if it is to be humane, philosophy needs aesthetics, and it needs art, and both of these in the service of overcoming the isolation of the subject. (And that analytical philosophy, in its willful ignorance of art, becomes somehow inhumane. But here you need not worry yourself about analytical philosophy, which is another kettle of fish.) All of which is to say, where Cavell seems particularly obscure, feel free to just move on through those sections to get to his discussion of sparkling wine from the Canary Islands.
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I feel a little funny since I seem to be one of the first to comment. If this isn't the way I'm supposed to do so, let me know.
ReplyDeleteI'm currently in the middle of the Cavell reading (Aesthetic Problems...), at the point where he's considering the possibility of getting to the meaning of the line from Romeo and Juliet, "Juliet is the sun." He may answer my question as I continue reading the essay, but for the sake of starting conversation, or maybe out of impatient curiosity, I wonder what he means when he talks about "paraphrasing the meaning." Is he debating about the writer's intended meaning, about a sole, proper reading by which we access the "true" meaning, or something else all together? Again, he may answer this question within the next paragraph and make me feel really silly for posting this question, but here it is anyway.
Actually, never mind. I think my question is kind of superfluous.
ReplyDeleteOn one level, I find myself agreeing with ordinary language philosophy. Specialized groups using specialized language makes everyone who does not know the language outsiders to the group. Why not explain ideas in simpler, more ordinary terms?
ReplyDeleteBut, regarding the paranoia example, I can’t help but wonder if some degree of skepticism and paranoia is important and perhaps beneficial for a genuine existence and understanding of the world. Suppose your stoner friend really is just using you for some reason and is in actuality disingenuous. Why assume your thoughts were mere paranoia and disregard an experience that may be true? It’s true that you can not fully conceptualize another’s inner person, but we can still make our own judgments based on how others talk and act etc. Sometimes philosophizing and opening your mind up to all possibilities can lead to greater insight and allow this kind of paranoid contemplation.
In this example, I can’t help but think it more humane to pursue only genuine relationships and drop the questionable ones that may make you paranoid. Obviously paranoia can also be negative in nature in which case you disregard it. But what if one feels alienated for a good reason? What if the masses are wrong? Suppose you are at a bull fight watching animals crudely die from stab wounds and feel like an outsider seeing everyone as masked citizens enjoying themselves. I would argue feeling this way is a better option than joining the herd.
Does ordinary language therapy work by not allowing questioning? Any thoughts?
It seems to me that "ordinary language" is a misleading name for this branch of philosophy. it doesn't seem to make use of ordinary language so much as it gives primacy to the common meanings of words, rather than specialized meanings. but i could be wrong about that. I feel like i understand it to a greater degree than Kant, whose language was incredibly specialized, but i don;t know if that's a total result of cavell writing in "ordinary language".
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ReplyDeleteIn reference to your "joining the heard" statement in defense of paranoia, I just read an interesting book by Sam Harris (a bit of a polemicist, but interesting all the same) where he attempts to propose a realist objective morality, arguing against a relativist morality. In a relativistic morality, one would accept the reasonless slaughter of the bull fight because of it's cultural context, because it is accepted as right in that particular culture. What interests me about Harris' proposal is that his is from an atheistic perspective. When I've heard argues for objective morals in the past, it has generally been by Christian or Jewish appologiticists who would argue that an objective morality could be taken as evidence of theism. This might be a little off track, but interesting none the less.
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